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Slender ch, f, and th (whether it be /h/ and /θ/ -
it was θ in Old Irish
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and it has been both in the course of Irish history) aren't all that different from each other. In many languages that have the ch sound, children go through a phase where they confuse the phonemes until they become sufficiently aware to differentiate them.
the Irish scribes weren't children

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The examples I gave above also show that they are related sounds even today.
chéin is a lenited form of céin. And there's no other example of f alternating with c, even in the modern language. The sounds /k'/ and /f'/ have nothing in common, except that they are slender. They aren't even pronounced in the same place in the mouth...
Why would a scribe write "céin" if he says /f'e:n'/ and why would he write féin if he says /k'e:n'/ ? That seems strange.